Using "le/les" AND an indirect object noun in the same sentence... Por qué?

[Tiffany]

Hello everyone!

I'm learning Spanish, and one thing I can't seem to get my head around is when spanish speakers use both an indirect object noun AND the third person pronoun in the same sentence...

Les escribí a mis primos
También le escribí a Monica

It seems so redundant and unnatural to me to use both the "le/les" as well as the indirect object noun, "a mis primos" or "a Monica". In English, I would just say: '"Escribí a mis primos" and leave out the le/les entirely. Or, if I were to say "Ï wrote to them" and use a pronoun, I would just say: "Les escribí." Why use both the pronoun and the noun?

Can anyone help me to understand this?

Cheers,
-Tiffany

[greytop]

Have a look at these references (http://www.bowdoin.edu/%7Eeyepes/newgr/ats/36a39.htm#objpron)
in the ever useful Bowdoin Spanish gramma (http://www.bowdoin.edu/%7Eeyepes/newgr/ats/index.html)r pages
After a while it will seem strange without the extra bits.

As there frequently is ambiguity with the third person, clarify with a ellas, a usted, etc.: Ella le escribe a él; yo le escribo a ella.
No le quiero pedir un favor a usted.
Se la mandé a él primero. She is writing to him; I am writing to her.
I don't want to ask you a favor.
I sent it to him first.
and
Spanish prefers to use the indirect object pronouns even when the indirect object is mentioned: Le estoy escribiendo al jefe.
¿Por qué no le pides dinero a tu hija? I am writing to the boss.
Why don't you ask your daughter for money?

[jonk]

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[greytop]

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[eldeano]

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[greytop]

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[ValenciaSon]

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[greytop]

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