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Old 15th September 2008, 04:16 PM   #1
Liam
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Default "A mi me gusta"

What is the general usage and English translation of this phrase? In particular, the "a mi" part...

Here is a guess. Am I close?

"As for me, I like..."
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Old 15th September 2008, 04:30 PM   #2
eldeano
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I think it's used more when there are comparisons to be made, as in 'I like this, you like that'. My son sings along to 'A mi me gusta bailar al ritmo vuelta, a ti te gusta bailar al ritmo vuelta, a todos les gusta bailar al ritmo vuelta'.
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Old 15th September 2008, 05:09 PM   #3
vicentef
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Default eldeano tiene razon

i think eldeano is correct. a mi me gusta can mean i like this o that
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Old 15th September 2008, 06:48 PM   #4
DiabloScott
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Liam View Post
What is the general usage and English translation of this phrase? In particular, the "a mi" part...

Here is a guess. Am I close?

"As for me, I like..."
Good but not something I hear very often.


Me gusta el arroz - I like rice.
A mi me gusta el arroz - What I like is rice. (usually vocal emphasis on "I")
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Old 15th September 2008, 08:03 PM   #5
Perro Callejero
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Liam View Post
What is the general usage and English translation of this phrase? In particular, the "a mi" part...

Here is a guess. Am I close?

"As for me, I like..."
Hi Liam. The literal translation would be "____ pleases me." However, in English, we would more likely say "I like _____."

The a mí (the accent is important to differentiate between the possessive pronoun!) places emphasis on the fact that it is pleasing "to you" and can be used to emphasize contrast between somebody else liking something or simply making the "I like" stronger in the sentence.
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Old 16th September 2008, 05:07 AM   #6
felipe
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At the risk of digging a grave for myself surely "a mi me gusta" is simply being grammatically complete? My Chilean teacher always taught us this as the "correct" way. He says that while you won't hear it that often you won't be at a loss when you do hear it. Y tambien, "A mi me gusta bailar" "?A quien?" "A mi". Makes life easier sometimes.
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Old 16th September 2008, 12:13 PM   #7
delgado
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Quote:
Originally Posted by felipe View Post
At the risk of digging a grave for myself surely "a mi me gusta" is simply being grammatically complete? My Chilean teacher always taught us this as the "correct" way. He says that while you won't hear it that often you won't be at a loss when you do hear it. Y tambien, "A mi me gusta bailar" "?A quien?" "A mi". Makes life easier sometimes.

I agree with Felipe but I did notice that the " a mi" is often omited if it is in the middle of a sentence .......

"no deberias salir tanto" You shouldn't go out so much
"es que me gusta ir de farra" It's that I like to party

Straying from the topic a little but it is also worth noting that you can substitute the verb " gustar" for "molar" ,"flipar" or "chiflar"

me mola/me flipa/me chifla/me gusta
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Old 16th September 2008, 07:00 PM   #8
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Technically "me gusta" is already gramatically complete, since all is required for a complete sentence is a subject and verb, which is fulfilled with simply the word "gusta." (Though you would never actually hear it just left like that). Spanish permits the omission of a separately explicitly named subject, and the "me" simply adds information as to whom it is pleasing. "A mí" emphasizes this fact more.

Le gusta bailar. He/she likes to dance. ¿A quién? We don't know exactly, but it is still a gramatically complete sentence, even if it is not informationally complete. Subject: bailar, verb: gustar, (complete sentence fulfilled) Indirect object: (via pronoun le) él/ella

A él le gusta bailar. He likes to dance ¿A quién? A él. Subject: bailar, verb: gustar, (complete sentence fulfilled) IO: él (emphasized with repetitive IO pronoun le)

Since le is an indirect pronoun, it can (and does) completely substitute the "a él" for a completely gramatically complete sentence, even if it leads to some confusion as to who likes what. When you add a repetitive indirect object "a _____" it is for clarification (especially in the 3rd person) or emphasis (for any person, but especially the first and second), but it is perfectly fine to leave it out, gramatically speaking.

Last edited by Perro Callejero; 16th September 2008 at 07:03 PM.
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Old 17th September 2008, 12:50 PM   #9
Berti
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The a mí, a ti, a él ect is an intensification of the phrase to be used for emphasis or clarity:

"a mí me gusta nadar" : here I am placing emphasis on my personal liking swimming.

" a mí me gusta nadar,pero a ti no" : here I am clarifying that I like swimming but you do not.
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Old 11th November 2010, 05:15 PM   #10
Steve W
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Imagine saying the English "I like it", with heavy emphasis on the "I". This is when I would use "a mí".

e.g.

1. after seeing a film - "A mí me ha gustado". Implying, "I don't know about anyone else, but I liked it?"
2. after everyone says they hate whisky - "A mí me gusta". Implying, "Well you may not, but I like it".


That was more complicated to write than to think. Phew.
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