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Old 10th November 2010, 03:42 PM   #18
Grimace
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Join Date: Jul 2007
Location: Madriz
Posts: 159
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I just realised that the 3rd person singular of "guiar" is "guió," but if the combination "uio" is supposedly a monosyllable in Spanish, why is there an accent there? Wouldn't it be considered superfluous as well strictly speaking? Like writing *dió or *vió, both of which are common mistakes among natives, but we foreigners are usually taught that most (or is it all?) irregular preterites don't have accents, so it helps us remember that. I guess it might be because it helps differentiate it from the present simple "guío" when reading it.

Thanks for your help.
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