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Old 10th November 2010, 08:42 PM   #2
PobrecitoHablador
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Join Date: Mar 2010
Location: Cantabria, Spain
Posts: 41
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"Caer bien", not simply "caer" in the sense of to fall, but also similar constructions like "caer mal", is a gustar-like construction. That means that, grammatically, it behaves like "gustar".
  1. "[A mí] Marta me cae muy bien."
  2. "[A Carlos] le gustan las manzanas."
Those usages tend to be counter-intuitive. I've added the object in brackets for clarity, they are optional, and doesn't need to be in the start of the sentence.
In 1. "Marta" is the grammatical subject, you may know it from the verb conjugation. "A mí" is the grammatical (indirect) object, and "me" is the object pronoun, it refers to "a mi" and must be there independently of "A mí" being dropped or staying. Note that you may add "muy" (or "nada", or other modifier) to "caer bien".
In 2. "Las manzanas" is the subject, "A carlos" the object, and "le" the (mandatory) object pronoun.

If you say "[Yo] le caigo bien a Marta." you are talking about how Marta feels about you.

Why?
Well, entire books may be written about it, but the short answer is: Spanish grammar/=English grammar (and a bit weird sometimes)

Examples:
[Talking to your sister] "Me cae bien ese novio que te has echado".
[Talking to a friend] "No me gusta mi nuevo trabajo, todos mis compañeros me caen mal".
[Talking about two friends] "Luis y Carolina se caen muy bien, llegarán a ser buenos amigos o, tal vez, a algo mas".
[Asking about someone boss] "¿Te cae bien tu jefe?".
[Replying] Me cae bien, aunque no te lo creas.
And so on.

Last edited by PobrecitoHablador; 10th November 2010 at 08:55 PM.
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