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#1 |
Super Forero
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 137
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The 22 Academies of the Spanish Language have just released a new edition of the Spelling Rules of the Spanish Languages. There are no substantial changes, but some minor considerations to keep into account for advanced learners:
* The Academies confirm the 27 letters of the Spanish alphabet (ll and ch are no longer letters since 1999), but the "y" letter is now called "ye" instead of "y griega". The denominations " be larga" and "be corta" for "b" and "v" - common in America - disappear. * Words like 'guión' and 'truhán' will no longer have a tilde. * The adverb 'solo' and the demonstrative pronouns will no longer require a tilde even in ambiguous cases. The use of tilde in these words becomes optional. * Absurdly in my opinion, the Academicians have decided to substitute the "q" letter in words like Iraq, Qatar or quórum by either "c" or "k" - Irak, Catar (sic) or cuórum (sic) are now the correct forms. At least, they leave us the option to use the original Latin form quorum as a Barbarism - in italics and with no tilde. * The prefix "ex" will be attached to the word (not hyphenated) - exmarido, expresidente -, except when it modifies composed nouns. In such case it will appear as a detached word: ex capitán general. Last edited by Urgellenk; 9th November 2010 at 02:01 AM. |
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#2 | |
Hero Forero
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Silver Spring, Maryland, USA
Posts: 4,915
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#3 | |
Big and Purple
Join Date: Jul 2007
Location: Madriz
Posts: 159
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I take it they've decided the incredibly simple and consistent system for accentuation (IF explained properly) is too hard for a few people and the solution should be to suppress accents in places they belong? Manda huevos . . . |
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#4 | |
Super Forero
Join Date: Aug 2010
Location: Hampshire UK & Asturias Spain
Posts: 113
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![]() That said the use of advanced technology to write, as opposed to the pen and paper, I would have thought would be a way to enforce and thus encourage correct usage even if it was seen as complex. For years the 'oldens' used to say "with all these spell checkers kids will never spell correctly". In truth I believe the reverse is true. If kids keep seeing red lines and then the correct spelling, then the latter is reinforced. "This is my theory and my theory alone" by Anne Elk, that is A N N E not an elk ...... and if you remember that you are an olden ![]() Last edited by SrCandas; 8th November 2010 at 09:25 AM. |
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#5 | |
Forero
Join Date: Jun 2010
Location: Seville
Posts: 47
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I think the main problem is when it's not possible to tell if a word is pronunced of one way or another, as you very good said. I don't understand with what purposes they is doing it. However, I have my own conclusions, plainly they have seen that is more easy to adapting to the current world, full of conversations SMS and other misspelled things. They'll say: "Alright let's go to delete all grammar rules". How will be the future? Who knows. I wouldn't like to offend but, I disagree with the Spanglish, the languages mix aren't correct to me. Certainly, as SrCandas said too, to writing only it's learned writing. Jeje, this thread encouraged me to write in English. Every time, I feel more free to voice what I mean. |
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#6 |
Super Forero
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 137
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I do think this new rule is congruent with the general Spanish spelling rules. It is true that most people pronounce "truhan" and "guion" like they were two-syllable words, but they are actually not. The general spelling rule is that, in order to break up a diphthong, you have to put a tilde on the weak vowel ("i" or "u"), never on the strong vowel. Therefore, truhan and guion are monosyllabic words - because the diphthong is not broken, and as such, should not have any tilde.
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#7 | |
Forero
Join Date: Jun 2010
Location: Seville
Posts: 47
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#8 | |
Super Forero
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 137
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There are plenty of one-syllable words ending in "on" that do not have tilde: pon, con, son, don, ron... Now "guion" also belongs to that category of words. That is the reason why, in my opinion, the new rule puts an end to a confusing inconsistency in the complicated rules on when to put the tilde. Last edited by Urgellenk; 9th November 2010 at 07:39 PM. |
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#9 |
Mega Forero
Join Date: May 2010
Location: New Mexico, US
Posts: 434
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I remember V as b-chica, not b-corta. And I have the hardest time convincing my boyfriend that those are really entirely separate sounds in English....
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#10 | |
Mega Forero
Join Date: May 2010
Location: New Mexico, US
Posts: 434
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#12 |
Hero Forero
Join Date: Apr 2006
Location: Pego, Spain
Posts: 3,363
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Now we're glad we never really learnt the old rules
![]() I bet they can't write any for English ![]() |
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#13 | |
Big and Purple
Join Date: Jul 2007
Location: Madriz
Posts: 159
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#14 |
Big and Purple
Join Date: Jul 2007
Location: Madriz
Posts: 159
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Try demonstrating how your top teeth touch your bottom lip when pronouncing "v" (labiodental fricative) and only your lips come together when pronouncing "b" (bilabial plosive).
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#15 |
He's the most tip top
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: UK
Posts: 3,889
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#16 | |
Super Forero
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 137
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A similar mispronunciation happens with "rio" (pretérido indefinido of "reir"). It is clearly a monosyllabic word, and yet most people tend to write it with a tilde on the "o" and, therefore, to pronounce it like it has two syllables (ree-OH). Oddly enough, the same phenomenon does not happen with similar verbs like "vio" and "dio" - that any educated person will write with no tilde and pronounce as monosyllables. |
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#17 | |
Super Forero
Join Date: Jul 2007
Posts: 163
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In any case it is not for you to question the all-powerful Real Academia Español--hay que fastidiarse. |
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#18 |
Big and Purple
Join Date: Jul 2007
Location: Madriz
Posts: 159
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I just realised that the 3rd person singular of "guiar" is "guió," but if the combination "uio" is supposedly a monosyllable in Spanish, why is there an accent there? Wouldn't it be considered superfluous as well strictly speaking? Like writing *dió or *vió, both of which are common mistakes among natives, but we foreigners are usually taught that most (or is it all?) irregular preterites don't have accents, so it helps us remember that. I guess it might be because it helps differentiate it from the present simple "guío" when reading it.
Thanks for your help. |
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#19 |
He's the most tip top
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: UK
Posts: 3,889
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#20 | ||||
Forero
Join Date: Mar 2010
Location: Cantabria, Spain
Posts: 41
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It is exactly the same rule as "guion" or ("Sion"). The rule is not that new, until now, it was optional to write the "tilde" depending if the writer felt like pronouncing an hiatus. That, obviously, wouldn't last. Note that in Spanish there are orthographical hiatus and diphthongs and depending on dialectal variations they may not be the same as spoken ones. I don't dislike the new rules, I feel them not to be necessary, but I suppose they know better than I do. And the point that those rules were agreend by academies in every Spanish speaking country is a nice step. "Pero, ¿porqué no han mantenido el estatus cúo?" RAE policy of "descriptive and normative" seems somewhat contradictory to me. And the "Q"s rule seems to be a good example: Nobody writes that way (with the exception of Irak). "Güisqui" or "cederrón" also comes to mind. ************************ Quote:
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Here comes my wild guess, or perhaps guesstimating: Andrés Bello produced a simplified version of the Spanish orthography back in the 1800-something. It was officially used in Chile for some time. It dropped the C's replacing them with Zs and Qs, separated Js and Gs sounds... but no merging of Vs and Bs. He even called them "Be" and "Ve" (without "corta" or "alta"). That merge must have been something quite new. And even more surprising: it happened in Spain as well as in America after the independence. Quote:
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